This flipped classroom covers tumors of the kidney and the diseases of the urinary bladder.
Threading case
Grace Whitfield, 54
A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician because of three episodes of painless passage of visible blood in the urine over the past month. She has had no fever, no urinary frequency or burning on urination, and no flank or abdominal pain. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for thirty years and worked for eleven years in a textile dyeing plant. Her temperature is 98.4°F, pulse is 78/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg. Examination shows no abdominal or flank mass and no costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis shows numerous erythrocytes with no casts, no proteinuria and no pyuria; urine culture is sterile. Serum creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL. Contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis shows normal kidneys and no bladder mass.
Before reading, note your initial thinking
Q1. Where in the urinary tract is the bleeding most likely to be arising?
Q2. Which malignancy does her exposure history make most likely?
Q3. Why does a normal CT not exclude malignancy?
Notes
Learning objectives covered
PATH.6035PATH.6036PATH.6037PATH.6038PATH.6039
Renal Tumors: origin and classification
Distinguish the common renal tumors by age, and name the three benign lesions of adults.
Where each tumor comes from
Click a numbered cell of origin
Click a number to see which tumor arises from that cell.
Angio, myo and lipo, arising from perivascular epithelioid cells. Present in 25 to 50% of patients with tuberous sclerosis, and also sporadic. Its vessels are thick-walled but not strong: the wall has no internal elastic lamina, so it bleeds.
↩
Oncocytoma
Why remove a benign tumor?
Recognition
Mahogany-brown, central scar
Large eosinophilic cells packed with mitochondria, forming a well-circumscribed mass with a central stellate scar.
↩
Renal papillary adenoma
Benign or malignant?
Definition
Benign, and usually incidental
Small unencapsulated papillary or tubulopapillary lesions with low-grade nuclei. Among the most common incidental findings at autopsy.
Associated syndrome
Tuberous sclerosis. A quarter to a half of these patients have an angiomyolipoma, and in them the tumors tend to be multiple and in both kidneys. This is why the association matters: more lesions mean more opportunities for bleeding.
Label the histology
Angiomyolipoma · H&E
Click each numbered marker to identify the component
Click a marker to identify each component.
Self-check
Attempt before revealing.
1
Angiomyolipoma contains three tissue types. Which one accounts for its main clinical risk, and why?
Answer
The vascular component. The vessels are thick-walled but not strong. A thick wall would normally mean a tough vessel, and these lack an internal elastic lamina, so they rupture. The danger in this benign tumor is spontaneous retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Back to Grace
Her examination makes a large renal tumor unlikely. It does not exclude a small one, and it says nothing at all about the tract below the kidney.
Decision point
If Grace were 3 years old rather than 54, which tumor would be the most likely diagnosis, and from which cell would it arise?
Explanation
Notes
Learning objective covered
PATH.6035
Renal Cell Carcinoma
Trace how loss of VHL shapes the appearance and behavior of clear cell RCC.
Peak age
6th–7th decade
Sex
2:1 M:F
Leading risk factor
Tobacco
Familial
~4%
Also: obesity, especially in women; hypertension as an independent factor; and occupational exposure to petroleum products and heavy metals.
The VHL pathway
VHL on chromosome 3p tags HIF for destruction. Lose both alleles and HIF accumulates, so the cell behaves as though it lacks oxygen even though the blood supply is normal.
The VHL pathway
Tap any node to see what it does
Scroll the diagram sideways to see all of it
Tap any node above to see details.
Histological subtypes
Major subtypes
Subtype
Genetics
Histology
Clear cell
3p loss, VHL
Nests of clear cells; yellow gross
Papillary
Trisomy 7 and 17, loss of Y, MET
Papillary; bilateral in hereditary form
Chromophobe
Multiple chromosome losses
Pale cells, prominent borders
Sporadic and hereditary forms of the two commonest subtypes. Clear cell carcinoma follows chromosome 3 deletion and loss of VHL, whether sporadic or inherited, and the hereditary form is bilateral and multifocal. Papillary carcinoma follows trisomy 7 and 17 with loss of Y in the sporadic form, trisomy 7 alone in the hereditary form, and an activating MET mutation in both.
RCC · Gross
Nephrectomy specimen. Large solitary tumor with hemorrhage, necrosis and a yellow cut surface from lipid-rich clear cells. Note invasion of the renal vein, which can extend as a solid column into the inferior vena cava and rarely the right atrium.
Clear Cell RCC · H&E
Histology. Left: nests of pale tumor cells separated by thin sinusoidal vessels. Right: large polygonal cells with clear cytoplasm, where glycogen and lipid dissolved out during processing.
Clinical features
Presentation
The classic triad is costovertebral pain, palpable flank mass and hematuria. All three together are uncommon, and hematuria is the most reliable single clue. Constitutional symptoms are common: fever, malaise, weakness, weight loss. Metastasis goes to lung in over 50% and bone in 33%, then regional nodes, liver, adrenals and brain.
Paraneoplastic syndromes
RCC is considered one of the great mimics in medicine. Abnormal hormone production lets it produce a diversity of systemic symptoms not related to the kidney.
↩
Polycythemia
Which hormone, and why this tumor?
Mechanism
Ectopic erythropoietin
Stabilized HIF transcribes EPO, so the marrow makes red cells the body does not need. Elevated hematocrit with normal oxygen saturation. Resolves after nephrectomy.
↩
Hypercalcemia
Which hormone?
Mechanism
Ectopic PTHrP
PTHrP mimics PTH at bone and kidney. Presents as confusion, constipation, polyuria or bone pain.
↩
Hypertension
Which hormone?
Mechanism
Ectopic renin
Tumor-derived renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, independent of renal artery stenosis.
↩
Feminization / masculinization
Which hormones?
Mechanism
Adrenal-steroid-like hormones
Gynecomastia in men, virilization in women. Uncommon, and the presentation gives no hint that the problem is in the kidney.
Self-check
Attempt before revealing.
2
Why is clear cell RCC yellow on the cut surface, and why do its cells look empty on H&E?
Answer
The cells are loaded with lipid and glycogen. That gives the intact specimen its golden color, and when those contents dissolve out during processing the cytoplasm is left optically clear on the slide.
Back to Grace
Thirty pack-years raises RCC as well as bladder cancer, since tobacco is the leading risk factor for both. What separates them in Grace is that RCC bleeds from a mass in the parenchyma, and her contrast CT reports normal kidneys.
Decision point
Loss of VHL makes clear cell RCC behave as though it were hypoxic. Which downstream consequence explains why these tumors are so vascular?
Explanation
Notes
Learning objective covered
PATH.6035
Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma)
Recognize the three tissue types of the childhood tumor, and what changes prognosis.
Peak age
< 6 years
90% of cases
Incidence
~1 in 10,000
Key gene
WT1 · 11p
Gross: large, well circumscribed and solitary, soft and homogeneous, pale tan to gray. Compare with RCC, which is golden-yellow, heterogeneous, and invades the renal vein.
Wilms Tumor · Gross
Nephrectomy specimen. A single large mass with a soft, fleshy, pale tan cut surface, sharply demarcated from the rim of residual kidney. The cut surface is pale rather than the golden-yellow of renal cell carcinoma.
Label the triphasic histology
Wilms Tumor · H&E
Click each numbered marker before reading the table
Click a marker to identify each component.
The three components
Component
Appearance
Represents
Blastemal
Sheets of small round blue cells, high N:C ratio
Undifferentiated metanephric blastema
Epithelial
Glandular and tubular structures
Differentiating tubular epithelium
Stromal
Spindle-cell connective tissue
Mesenchymal stroma of the developing kidney
Wilms Tumor · Anaplasia
Anaplasia. Nuclei at least three times the size of their neighbors, with atypical multipolar mitotic figures. Associated with TP53 mutation, and the most important adverse prognostic marker because it predicts resistance to chemotherapy. Focal anaplasia does better than diffuse.
Self-check
Attempt before revealing.
3
Why does triphasic histology make embryological sense, and which gene decides the prognosis?
Answer
The tumor arises from metanephric blastema, the cell population the whole kidney develops from, so it recapitulates nephrogenesis in disordered form: blastema, epithelium differentiating toward tubules, and mesenchymal stroma. Prognosis turns on TP53, whose mutation produces anaplasia and so chemoresistance. WT1 drives tumor formation and has no role in anaplastic change.
Notes
Learning objective covered
PATH.6035
Diseases of the Urinary Bladder
Explain the congenital anomalies, the two kinds of cystitis, and how bladder cancer is staged.
Congenital anomalies
Congenital anomalies
Anomaly
Significance
Urachal fistula
Fully patent urachus. Urine leaks from the umbilicus in the newborn.
Urachal cyst
Partially patent; the central segment stays open, and the trapped segment becomes infected.
Diverticulum
Outpouching at a point of muscular weakness. Urine stagnates, so infection and calculi follow.
Vesicoureteral reflux
The most common and most serious anomaly. Causes ascending pyelonephritis and renal scarring.
Exstrophy
The anterior wall fails to close, so the bladder communicates with the abdominal wall. The exposed mucosa undergoes metaplasia and is at risk of infection.
Cystitis
Predisposed by female sex, diabetes, instrumentation, calculi and outlet obstruction. Most common organisms are the coliforms: E. coli first, then Proteus, Klebsiella and Enterobacter. Symptoms are frequency, suprapubic pain and dysuria, with fever, chills and microscopic hematuria.
Infectious vs interstitial
Feature
Acute infectious
Interstitial
Etiology
Bacterial, fungal or parasitic
Unknown; chronic pelvic pain syndrome
Duration
Days
More than six weeks by definition
Urine culture
Positive
Negative
Cystoscopy
Erythema and edema
Mucosal fissures, punctate hemorrhages
Histology
Neutrophil infiltrate
Non-specific; submucosal mast cells increased
Biopsy
Not routinely needed
Required, to exclude carcinoma in situ
Do not miss this
Why the biopsy is mandatory. Flat carcinoma in situ produces the same symptoms and forms no visible mass, so it is clinically indistinguishable from interstitial cystitis. Interstitial cystitis is a diagnosis of exclusion, and what is being excluded is a high-grade cancer.
Bladder neoplasms
Age
50–80 years
80% of patients
Sex
3:1 M:F
Leading risk factor
Cigarette smoking
Leading prognostic factor
Stage at diagnosis
Three categories: epithelial (urothelial carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma), mesenchymal (leiomyoma, leiomyosarcoma) and secondary, by direct extension from cervix, uterus, prostate or rectum. Risk factors for urothelial carcinoma: smoking above all, then industrial aryl amines, analgesic abuse, irradiation and Schistosoma haematobium. Presentation is painless hematuria; a tumor at the ureteral orifice can obstruct it and cause hydronephrosis or pyelonephritis.
Work through the sequence
Progression through the bladder wall
1 of 6
Two routes to invasion. The papillary route above, the flat route below.
Papillary vs flat
Feature
Papillary
Flat (CIS)
Gross
Finger-like fronds into the lumen
Red velvety patch, or invisible
Grade
Often low; climbs over time
High grade by definition
Behavior
High recurrence; a minority invade
50–75% progress to muscle-invasive
Papillary Urothelial Carcinoma
Cystoscopy and histology. Left: frond-like projections into the lumen. Right: fibrovascular cores lined by transitional epithelium, with mitotic figures arrowed at high power. This is a non-invasive papillary urothelial neoplasm.
Squamous cell carcinoma
Three to seven percent of bladder cancers in the United States, far more where urinary schistosomiasis is endemic. Histology is squamous carcinoma as elsewhere in the body, with keratin pearls. The bladder has no squamous epithelium of its own, so the sequence runs: chronic irritation → squamous metaplasia → dysplasia → carcinoma.
Self-check
Attempt before revealing.
4
Squamous carcinoma needs a metaplastic step first. What is the equivalent change for bladder adenocarcinoma, and where does it arise?
Answer
Columnar metaplasia. It arises where mucosa is chronically exposed or chronically irritated, as in a urachal remnant or in exstrophy. The principle is the same as the squamous route: the epithelium is first replaced by a different type, and that new epithelium is what becomes malignant.
Back to Grace
A 54-year-old smoker with aryl amine exposure, painless visible hematuria, sterile urine and normal imaging. One lesion fits all of it: high grade, forming no mass, invisible on CT.
Decision point
Cystoscopy in Grace shows no mass, only a red velvety patch on the posterior wall. Biopsy shows high-grade malignant cells filling the full thickness of the urothelium, with an intact basement membrane. Which of the following best describes this lesion and how it behaves?
Explanation
Notes
Learning objectives covered
PATH.6036PATH.6037PATH.6038PATH.6039
Summary
Return to the three questions you set aside at the start, and write your answers before class.
Threading case
Grace Whitfield, 54
A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician because of three episodes of painless passage of visible blood in the urine over the past month. She has had no fever, no urinary frequency or burning on urination, and no flank or abdominal pain. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for thirty years and worked for eleven years in a textile dyeing plant. Her temperature is 98.4°F, pulse is 78/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg. Examination shows no abdominal or flank mass and no costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis shows numerous erythrocytes with no casts, no proteinuria and no pyuria; urine culture is sterile. Serum creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL. Contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis shows normal kidneys and no bladder mass.
Now answer with what you have read
Attempt each one before revealing.
1
Where in the urinary tract is the bleeding most likely to be arising?
Answer
The collecting system: renal pelvis, ureter, bladder or urethra. The urinalysis is what excludes a glomerular source. Glomerular bleeding is microscopic and comes with proteinuria, dysmorphic red cells and red cell casts, usually alongside edema, hypertension and a rising creatinine. Grace has erythrocytes with no casts, no proteinuria, a normal blood pressure and a creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL. Her bleeding is painless, visible and intermittent, and in an adult that means a tumor until proved otherwise. The sterile culture and absent pyuria argue against cystitis.
2
Which malignancy does her exposure history make most likely?
Answer
Urothelial carcinoma. Both exposures point there and both reach the tissue the same way. Tobacco is its leading risk factor, and the aryl amines used in dye and rubber manufacture, 2-naphthylamine and benzidine, are the classic occupational cause. Each is absorbed, metabolized and excreted in urine, so the urothelium is in contact with the carcinogen for as long as the urine stays in the bladder. That route is also why the damage affects the whole surface rather than one site: tumors are multifocal, and recurrence reaches 70%. Tobacco raises renal cell carcinoma too, but there the carcinogens arrive in blood at the tubular epithelium, and her kidneys are normal on CT.
3
Why does a normal CT not exclude malignancy?
Answer
CT finds most tumors because they form a mass, which is to say a lesion large enough to change the contour or the thickness of an organ wall. Flat carcinoma in situ is only a few cell layers thick and lies flat within the urothelium, so it alters neither, and the scan has nothing to resolve. It is high grade all the same. At cystoscopy it may show only a red velvety patch, or nothing at all. A normal CT therefore excludes a mass, and excluding a mass is not the same as excluding a cancer. This is why painless hematuria in an adult is investigated with cystoscopy, urine cytology and biopsy rather than imaging alone, and the same reason interstitial cystitis cannot be diagnosed without a biopsy.
Compare them side by side
Renal and bladder tumors compared
Tumor
Age
Origin
Gross
Genetics
Signature clue
Angiomyolipoma
Adult
Perivascular epithelioid cell
Contains fat
TSC1 / TSC2
Tuberous sclerosis; spontaneous hemorrhage
Oncocytoma
Adult
Intercalated cell
Mahogany-brown, central scar
—
Benign, but resected because imaging cannot exclude RCC
Clear cell RCC
6th–7th decade
Proximal tubule
Golden-yellow; renal vein
3p loss, VHL
Paraneoplastic syndromes; clear cytoplasm
Wilms tumor
< 6 years
Metanephric blastema
Large, pale tan, soft
WT1 · 11p
Triphasic histology; anaplasia means TP53
Urothelial carcinoma
> 60 years
Urothelium
Papillary fronds, or flat
—
Painless hematuria; smoking; multifocal
Squamous cell carcinoma
> 60 years
Metaplastic squamous
Fungating or ulcerative
—
Keratin pearls; schistosomiasis
Before the session
You have covered where each tumor comes from, the VHL pathway behind clear cell RCC, the triphasic tumor of childhood, and the boundary in the bladder wall that decides treatment. Grace’s case opens the class.
Thank you!
Notes
Learning objectives covered
PATH.6035PATH.6036PATH.6037PATH.6038PATH.6039
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Pathology images are reproduced from Robbins and Cotran, Pathologic Basis of Disease, and used with permission for classroom teaching at St. George’s University.